Jonathan H. B. Lobl Posted June 10, 2020 Author Report Share Posted June 10, 2020 (edited) 1 hour ago, Coolhand said: Im still wondering....how do you feel the scribal issue that this topic was started with impacts that message? That Marry, wife of Jesus, was replaced with Martha? It seems possible. At that time in history, a Jewish man without a wife could never have a following. The Catholic Church got all hung up on Marry's virginity. I could see them making such a change. Of course, there are the legends. That Jesus and Marry escaped to France. That Marry was the Holy Grail (Vessel). Southern France was the site of the Albigensian Heresy. The Grail became central to the King Arthur story. Is that what you were hinting at? Edited June 10, 2020 by Jonathan H. B. Lobl Quote Link to comment
Coolhand Posted June 10, 2020 Report Share Posted June 10, 2020 (edited) John states in 20:31 of his gospel that he wrote this gospel so that we may believe that Jesus is the Messiah and that believing in his name we would have life. And, he quoted 14 "proofs" to back it up. This topic started off with an interview with a grad student working on textual research. She noticed a discrepancy in the hand written copy of P66. She thinks, believes, and says its possible that this could hypothetically be intentional and possibly not an error, and may even have conspiracy element to it. I have pointed out to you the the message of this book, and I ask you the following: 1) How big is the impact of this scribal issue to the main point of this gospel? 2) On a scale of 1 to 10, how severely does it impact the point and message which Mary is the Mary in the text? 3) On a scale of 1 to 10 how severly does it impact the point and message if there are 2 sisters or 1? 4) What percentage of the total content of the gospel of John does this portion with the questionable part represent? Edited June 10, 2020 by Coolhand Quote Link to comment
Jonathan H. B. Lobl Posted June 10, 2020 Author Report Share Posted June 10, 2020 41 minutes ago, Coolhand said: John states in 20:31 of his gospel that he wrote this gospel so that we may believe that Jesus is the Messiah and that believing in his name we would have life. And, he quoted 14 "proofs" to back it up. This topic started off with an interview with a grad student working on textual research. She noticed a discrepancy in the hand written copy of P66. She thinks, believes, and says its possible that this could hypothetically be intentional and possibly not an error, and may even have conspiracy element to it. I have pointed out to you the the message of this book, and I ask you the following: 1) How big is the impact of this scribal issue to the main point of this gospel? 2) On a scale of 1 to 10, how severely does it impact the point and message which Mary is the Mary in the text? 3) On a scale of 1 to 10 how severly does it impact the point and message if there are 2 sisters or 1? 4) What percentage of the total content of the gospel of John does this portion with the questionable part represent? I can only speak for myself. Before I can "believe" anything in the Greek Scriptures -- I would first need to "believe" the Hebrew Scriptures. If I "believed" the Hebrew Scriptures -- I would be Orthodox Jewish, instead of Secular Jewish. This is on the theory, that the religion I'm not practicing, is my own. Instead of someone else's. So no. These scribal details change nothing for me. I am an Atheist. For me, starting with John doesn't make a lot of sense. There are other matters to be established first. Like God's existence. I am also an Apatheist. Because a god that can not be demonstrated to exist, is meaningless. Even if that God actually exists, it still doesn't matter. I have been arguing metaphysics and philosophy for years. I can't do it any more. The fire has gone out. Quote Link to comment
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